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All-Russian School Olympiad in English. "municipal stage of the All-Russian Olympiad in English"

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ANSWER SHEET 9-11 listening, reading .doc

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ANSWER SHEET: LISTENING, READING (9-11)

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ANSWER SHEET: USE OF ENGLISH (9-11)

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ANSWER SHEET: WRITING (9-11)

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There are numerous errors in the text(more than 7) in different sections of grammar, including those that make it difficult to understand the text.

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The text contains numerous spelling errors.(more than 4) and/or punctuation errors(more than 7) , including those that make it difficult to understand the text.

Procedure for checking works in a writing competition

 Each work is checked without fail by two experts who work independently of each other (no marks are allowed on the work); each expert enters his assessments into his own assessment protocol.

 If the discrepancy in the experts' assessments does not exceed two points, then the average score is assigned. For example, if the first expert gives 9 points, and the second 8 points, the final score is 9 points; If the first expert gives 9 points, and the second 7 points, the final score is 8 points.

 If the discrepancy in the experts’ assessments is three or four points, then another check is assigned, in which case the two closest assessments are subject to averaging.

 “Controversial” works (in the case of a large discrepancy of points – 5 or more) are checked and discussed collectively.

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Script 1

Before the curtain rises, let's listen to their conversation.

A: What took you so long? The play is starting soon.

B: I wanted to buy something to eat, but that turned out to be awild goose chase. This theater does not have any food!

A: I thought you went home.

B: Why would I leave?

A: I suspect you know more than you think.

B: What do you mean?

B: Well, I wish you would have told me that this theater doesn’t serve food before my wild-goose chase. I'm so hungry! A friend has been staying with me for the past month and he’seating meout of house and home! There's nothing left in my house to eat.

B: What expression, “I’m hungry!”?

B: That is exactly what is happening… just like in Henry IV!

A: So, why has your friend been staying with you for so long?

B: He says he got into alittle trouble with the law and needs tolie lowfor a while.

A: Well, you must understand a little because you use his expressions all the time. “It's Greek to me”is from the playJulius Caesar ! And it’s a one way to tell someone you don’t have a clue what’s going on.

A: Guess what?

Script 2

Chef Randall: Well, hello everyone, and welcome to today's show. And joining me today is my daughter, Ashley, who had to endure my cooking experiments over the years.

Are we ready, Ashley? No, let's wait for a few minutes. We'll get to that. But as you know, my faithful listeners, I starting cooking and baking almost 30 years ago when my grandmother taught me in her humble kitchen. In fact, she taught almost me everything I know, and I"ve never attended cooking classes Wait, wait, wait... I know my daughter"s going to mention to you faithful listeners that recently as I was helping the kids prepare for our kitchen for chicken meal, I forgot to take the chicken out of the oven, burned the bird to a crisp, and we ended up ordering pizza for dinner.

Kids: We had to use the fire extinguisher.

Chef Randall: But that"s another story. So, anyway, today I"d like to share with you our favorite. . . at least my favorite. . . chocolate chip cookie recipe. Now, before you switch the TV channel, I know what you are thinking. "Another fattening cookie recipe." But wait. What makes this recipe great is that it offers a wonderful low-fat, low-calorie, low-cholesterol dessert for the entire family.

Kids: We still like the fat though.

Chef Randall: Well, I know we do. But let's see. We have all the ingredients, so we can start by mixing all of the ingredients, the sugars, the flour, the egg whites, the low-fat butter, vanilla, baking soda, and a pinch of salt in a large mixing bowl. Then, we add the mini chocolate chips

Now, my kids would like me to add the big ones but we start with the mini-chocolate chips. And don't forget to preheat the oven to 350 degrees (Fahrenheit).

And finally, when the cookies are done, take them out of the oven, remove them from the cookie sheet, and let them cool before their fingers get into them. Did I forget anything?

Kids: Yeah, if you have college-age kids, be sure to make a few extra batches they can take back to school for their roommates. And don't forget the kids still at home.

Chef Randall: Oh, well yeah. We can"t do that. We can"t forget them. And unfortunately, by the time your kids get the cookies, you, the cook, will be left with a single cookie - your instant diet plan for you - and a dirty kitchen.

So, that"s all for today. On next week"s show, we will be showing you how to feed hungry teenagers on a budget without having to sell the family car. Until then.

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Municipal stage of the All-Russian Olympiad for schoolchildren in English, 2016.

9-11 classes

Part 1. Listening Comprehension (20 minutes)

Task 1. Say if the statements are True (A) or False (B).

One of the speakers uses the term ‘wild goose chase’ because he failed to buy food at the theater.

‘A wild goose chase’ used to mean a horse race.

The speaker’s friend needs to lie low in order to avoid detection.

In old times the color green was associated with good health.

If you cannot make head or tail of something, you say, ‘It’s Greek to me!’

‘Be-all and end-all’ means the least significant part of something.

Task 2. Match the expressions with the plays where they appeared. There are four extra plays which you do not need to use.

11) wild goose chase

12) eat someone out of house and home

13) lie low

14) it's all Greek to me

15) be-all and end-all

Hamlet

Romeo and Juliet

King Lear

Macbeth

Othello

Julius Caesar

Richard III

Henry IV

Much Ado About Nothing

Task 3. Listen to the program and fill in the gaps with no more than two words for each gap. You'll hear the recording twice.

Chef Randall started cooking ________ years ago when his grandmother taught him how to do it.

He has never ___________ cooking classes.

When Randall was helping the kids prepare a chicken meal, he forgot to take the chicken out of the __________.

The bird was burnt and they had to use a ________ _______________.

A chocolate chip cookie is an excellent ___________ for the entire family.

Chef Randall mixes sugar, ___________, egg whites, low-fat butter, vanilla, baking soda and salt.

It’s necessary not to forget to ___________ the oven to 350°.

When the cookies are ready, remove them from the cookie _________.

By the time the kids get the cookies, the chef will be left with a _________ cookie and a dirty kitchen.

Next time Randall will show how to feed hungry teenagers on a _______.

Part 2. Reading Comprehension (15 minutes)

Read the text about English houses and say whether the statements given below are True (A), False (B) or Not Given (C).

Most people in England live in flats.

Typical housing in Britain does not differ from that in other European countries.

High-rise buildings are a common feature of English towns and cities.

Tenants are evicted if they make noise and break the rules.

Having a garden is really important for an Englishman.

Terraced houses were cheaper to build than high-rise buildings during the Industrial Revolution.

In the times of the Industrial Revolution open fires heated all the rooms of the terraced house.

Semi-detached houses were not expensive to build and seemed convenient for people.

Most English homes are bought on a mortgage.

There are few old houses in England.

Rich people detest living in houses.

Bungalows are houses built on one level only and are an excellent dwelling for old people.

Flat residents pay rent and utilities.

Flats are popular among students, old people and poor families.

Living in a flat means more flexibility – it is easier to cancel the lease and move to a different location.

From towns and cities let us turn to the houses of Britain. The most important point is to understand that most of us do not live in flats. Every country has its typical housing so that if you cross from England into France or Germany or Spain, you will know instantly that you are in another country. The differences are partly architectural, partly aspects of the way people choose to domesticate their immediate surroundings. But there are also similarities. If you travel from Russia across Europe to western France you will observe that almost all cities have a center with old buildings of three or four even five storeys, but that these centers are surrounded by modem blocks of high-rise flats. The details will vary, but all countries have found that the obvious solution to cheap new housing in order to accommodate families moving from the countryside or needing improved conditions is to build blocks of flats. They are rarely beautiful or spacious, but they are convenient and efficient. The problems are similar: noise, cramped public areas, unpredictable water supplies, broken lifts ... but they are homes for millions of people who prefer them to the more primitive conditions they have left.

In England, however, our cities are not encircled by these high-rise buildings. We resist living in flats; we prefer to live in rows of small brick houses. Of course some English people enjoy living in flats, but for the vast majority of us, the basic idea of home is a brick house with rooms upstairs and downstairs and with a garden, even if it is a very small garden.

The brick house is a legacy of the English - the earliest - Industrial Revolution. Employers at the beginning of the nineteenth century had to build accommodation for the millions of workers pouring into the cities and at that time they did not have the materials or technology for cheap building upwards. For them the cheapest solution was to build rows of small houses joined together (terraces), each with two small rooms downstairs and two small rooms upstairs. The rooms were small because they were heated by open fires, not by stoves, and families tended to huddle in one room (the kitchen). Bedrooms were unheated, and to this day many English people find it impossible to sleep except in a cold room with the windows wide open.

Most of our housing schemes thereafter are logical improvements to this working-class pattern. Houses became larger; millions of us live in houses with two rooms and a kitchen downstairs, and two or three small rooms plus bathroom-and-toilet upstairs. Before the First World War someone invented the 'semi-detached house" which was still cheap to build but which allowed each family to reach the back of their house down a narrow side passage. This enabled men to carry sacks of coal to the back yard where it could be stored and used for the boiler and open fires.

Russians have a habit of describing anything built before about 1955 as ‘old’. (So do Californians, and no doubt many other people.) In England a house does not qualify as old unless it was built at least a hundred years ago. We still have tens of thousands of really old houses, built between the fourteenth and eighteenth centuries scattered throughout the country. They may be inconvenient but richer people love to live in them so they become very expensive, even when they are quite small. Thousands of these older houses are strikingly beautiful and protected by law. At the other end of the scale are ‘bungalows’, small brick houses of only one storey, built especially for the elderly. Many older people move from a house into a bungalow.

I have written that we do not live in flats. To be more precise, most of us do not live in flats unless we are young or old or poor. Students and young people who are renting accommodation will often find a converted flat constructed inside one of the many houses built for a single family with their servants a hundred years or more ago. These houses are too big for today’s family (with no servants!) so they are converted into three or four separate flats. The arrangement and size of rooms is often odd, but they have the advantages of ordinary family houses such as a garden.

Part 3. Use of English (55 minutes)

Task 1. For items 1-10, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only one word in each gap. The first example (0) is done for you.

Suffolk is often overlooked (0)as a holiday destination.

A beautiful and unspoilt county, its countryside1) _____ dotted with beautiful historic towns and villages, while exquisite beaches line the coast.

Much of Suffolk2) ______ escaped the unsightly development blighting other counties, although its landscape is often dismissed3) ______ monotonous and flat.

There’s lots of variety, spanning a romantically bleak coastline giving way4) ______ salt marsh and sandy heaths, rich forest and fen, valleys and rolling hills.

Along the 60-mile coast, there’s the sleepy, ancient town of Orford, and genteel Aldeburgh. Orford boasts a 12th-century castle and 14th-century church, river cruises and pleasant pubs. Buy freshly baked bread from Pump Street Bakery, which also has a cafe. For smoked fish and local delicacies, pop5) ____ Pinney’s, or dine in its celebrated restaurant, the Butley Orford Oysterage – its no-frills decor belies the delicious food6) _____ offer.

The smart seaside town of Aldeburgh is a favorite with artists, composers and yachtsmen. It's also home7) _____ the annual Aldeburgh Festival (June) founded by Benjamin Britten, which is an arts festival with an emphasis8) _____ classical music.

Aldeburgh9) _____ once a thriving port with a successful ship building industry, the Golden Hind was built here, which circumnavigated the globe in the 16th century captained10) _____ Sir Francis Drake.

Task 2. Read the interview with a well-known British actress Angela Griffin and complete the text with the correct form of the verbs from the box (affirmative or negative).

land do take work sign suppose be need teach grass

A Cup of Tea with Angela Griffin

How do you take your tea?
I like builder’s tea, with a little bit of milk.

Who would you most like to have a cup of tea with?
Ryan Gosling. He's gorgeous! We could do a little cultural exchange. I’ll introduce him to the tea-drinking culture of England.

What’s the strangest job you’ve ever had?
When I was 14, I got a job sticking little bows onto shampoo bottles in a factory. I11) ______________ to be working at all, but I lied and said I was older than I was. I lasted about two and a half hours before somebody12) _____ me up to the managers.

When did become acting part of the picture?
My auntie Linda13) ________ me to drama classes at Leed’s Children’s Theater since I was 5. I had an agent by the time I was a teenager, and had done some children’s television programs. Acting was my passion, but we14) ______ a well-off family so if I wanted to buy something I had to earn the money myself.

Were you quite an independent teenager?
I guess so. I15) ________ my first role in Coronation Street when I was 17, and moved into a flat on my own. By my 18th birthday, I16) _________ the deeds to my first house in Leeds.

What did your parents think of your acting career?
They were just happy that I had a passion. Acting’s not their thing at all. My dad was a cleaner and my mum17) _________ office skills at college. But they were glad I had something to aim for. I feel the same about my two daughters.

Your daughter Tallulah, 14, is now a working actress herself. Do you worry about the pressure on the industry places on young actors?
Things are so much tougher for the youngsters now. It’s not just about the talent anymore. You've got to have the looks too. And there are some real scoundrels out there, but luckily I can guide Tallulah because I know how the business18) __________ .

Do you tell Tallulah what she can and can’t do?
Until she’s 18, yes definitely! She's mine, I own her. But I’m not one of these Victorian mums. If she19) ________ to go away for 16 weeks to film a series then I will let her. I’m very open-minded to it all, but I’m not going to let her do a Lolita role or go live in America on her own at 14. I know how these things should go.

Task 3. For questions 21-30, think of one word only which can be used appropriately in all three sentences.

The temperature _______ to the freezing point.

People _______ like flies within weeks of being diagnosed.

I’d rather you _______ me a line.

I feel that I can never get _______ with George again.

We must _______ out the differences between social classes.

The tables are fitted with a glass top to provide an ________ surface.

I’d like to ________ your attention to the problem of unemployment in your region.

I was going to _______ $100 out of my account.

I don’t want you to _______ the wrong conclusion from the meeting.

It was my mother’s decision to _______ me Stephen.

Call James, tell him to _______ the price.

My best friend made her _______ with several collections of short stories.

This company is a takeover _________.

It has been the ________ of international criticism for human rights abuses.

The arrow hit the center of the _________.

Sandra was writhing in ________, bathed in perspiration.

The practice of changing the clocks twice a year is a real _______.

It’s a _______ in the neck having to meet all my relatives at the airport.

Memories of that evening were still ________.

Simon has got a _______ imagination.

As I spoke, there came a _______ flash of lightning closely followed by a peal of thunder.

Old-age pensioners are __________ free to the museum.

Martin _________ that he had made a mistake.

It was well-known that the hall ________ 300 people.

The ice on the Great Lakes will ________ up soon.

I hate people who ________ their promise, they are not reliable.

Who’s going to ________ the bad news to her?

This novel is ______ in London in the 1960s.

I’m not to blame, I’ve been ______ up.

The arsonist who _______ fire to a family home in Barrow where two young children and several adults were sleeping has been jailed.

Task 4. Complete the text with the words from the box. There are 5 extra words, which you do not need to use.

the Tower of London the Houses of Parliament Westminster Abbey Robert Catesby James I Queen Mary II Queen Elizabeth I Charles I GuyFawkesLord Monteaglemoney cellar penny effigies gunpowder

In 1605, thirteen young men planned to blow up31) _______________. Among them was Guy Fawkes, Britain’s notorious most traitor.

After32) ___________________ died in 1603, English Catholics who had been persecuted under her rule had hoped that her successor,33) _______, would be more tolerant of their religion. He had a Catholic mother and did not turn out to be tolerant. So, a number of young men, 13 to be exact, decided that violent action was the answer.

A small group took shape, under the leadership of34) _____________ who felt that violent action was warranted. The plotters were going to kill the King, maybe even the Prince of Wales who were making life difficult for the Catholics.

To carry out their plan, the conspirators got hold of 36 barrels of35) __________________ – and stored them in a36) _____________.

But as the group worked on the plot, it became clear that innocent people would be hurt or killed in the attack, including some people who even fought for more rights for Catholics. Some of the plotters started having second thoughts. One of the group members even sent an anonymous letter warning his friend,37) ____________, to stay away from the Parliament on November 5th. Was the letter real?

The warning letter reached the King, and the King’s forces made plans to stop the conspirators.

38) _______________ was caught by the authorities near the barrels, tortured and executed. The Plot was foiled in the night between the 4th and 5th of November 1605. Already on the 5th, agitated Londoners who knew little more than that their King had been saved, joyfully lit bonfires in thanksgiving. As years progressed, however, the ritual became more elaborate.

Soon, people began placing39) _______________ onto bonfires, and fireworks were added to the celebrations. Preparations for Bonfire Night celebrations include making a dummy of Guy Fawkes, which is called “the Guy”. Some children even keep up an old tradition of walking in the streets, carrying “the Guy” they have just made, and beg passersby for “a40) ________ for the Guy.” The kids use the money to buy fireworks for the evening festivities.

On the night itself, Guy is placed on top of the bonfire, which is then set alight; and fireworks displays fill the sky.

Part 4. Writing (40 minutes)

Time: 40 minutes

Write a composition expressing your opinion on the following problem:

Chinese will soon become an international language.

Write180 -220 words.

Remember to

make an introduction,

express your personal opinion on the problem and give 3-4 reasons for your opinion,

make a conclusion.

Transfer your composition to the answer sheet!

Find material for any lesson,

9-11 grades 2014

ATTENTION! It is prohibited to bring into the audience any means of mobile communication (mobile phones, pagers, etc. equipment), players, etc.

The use of dictionaries and reference books is PROHIBITED!

Participants should be seated in such a way that they do not see the work of other participants.

All instructions for participants before conducting written competitions are given in Russian.

Before the start of written competitions, the senior jury member in the audience gives a general briefing. The following points must be noted in the briefing:

Before the start of the written competition, announce:

About the duration of the competition.

Listening comprehension: 8 minutes.

Integrated reading and listening: 7 minutes.

Reading comprehension: 25 minutes.

Use of English: 60 minutes.

Writing: 50 minutes.

It is not recommended to leave the audience during the competition. Only one person at a time is allowed to go to the toilet. During this time, the participant submits his work to the jury members on duty. A record of the time of absence is made on the answer sheet. If a participant has questions during the competition, you can raise your hand and wait for a member of the jury to come up and answer the participant’s question.Jury members cannot answer questions related to the text of the task. During the Listening and Integrated reading and listening competitions, you cannot leave the audience and ask any questions.

2. After the general introductory part, the jury members distribute answer sheets (in the Writing competition the task is written on the answer sheet). The senior jury member in the audience gives instructions onorder of completing answer sheets:

The answer sheet indicates: Participant number.
On the answer sheet categorically It is prohibited to indicate surnames, make drawings or make any marks.
Draft paper is distributedonly in the Writing competition, in other competitions the task sheet can be used as a draft.
Written work must be written in black or blue ink only. Red, green, etc. are prohibited. You cannot write in pencil or make pencil marks in the text.
Nothing can be shortened in written work. All abbreviations will be considered spelling errors.
You should write legibly; controversial cases (o/a) are interpreted not in favor of the participant.
No covering with correction fluid or erasing should be done. If you need to correct it, you can carefully cross out the incorrect answer.

3. After instructions for filling out the answer sheet, the text with the task is distributed and the start time of the competition is written on the board.

15 and 5 minutes before the end of work:

Remind about the remaining time and warn about the need to carefully check the work.
Remind that jury members must be given answer sheets and assignment texts/drafts.
Remind you that all the answers must be transferred to the answer sheets, since the texts of the assignments/drafts are not checked.
Follow strictly so that the texts of assignments, answer sheets and drafts are not taken out of the classroom.

When handing over the work, carefully check:

availability of all issued answer sheets.
availability of all issued task texts.
absence of extraneous notes on the answer sheet.

The English Language Olympiad consists of 5 parts:

listening comprehension competition (Listening Comprehension);
competition for understanding written and listening texts (Integrated Reading and Listening);
Reading Comprehension competition;
lexico-grammatical test (Use of English);

4) writing competition.

For each correct answer, the participant receives one point. The writing competition is worth 20 points (Writing – 20 points).

The maximum number of points is 110.

Students write their answers on the answer sheets ( Answer sheet ), which are issued to each participant in the Olympiad. The task from the Writing section is completed on the form of the task itself. Neither on the Answer sheet nor on the assignment form from the Writing section is the student’s last and first name NOT are being written. Each participant enters his identification number, which is assigned to him before writing the Olympiad.

Spelling errors in assignments are taken into account; if there is a spelling error on the answer sheet, no point will be awarded for the correct answer.

Part 1. Competition for understanding the listening text (Listening Comprehension)

When holding a competition for understanding the text listened to (section Listening) is necessary:

give participants 1 minute to familiarize themselves with the first task;
enable recording (track no. 1);
give participants 1 minute to familiarize themselves with the second task;
enable recording (track number 2);

Part 2. Competition for understanding the text read and listened to (Integrated Reading and Listening)

When conducting this competition you must:

give participants 2 minutes to read the text and familiarize themselves with the task;
enable recording (track no. 3);
give participants 50 seconds to review their answers;
turn on recording (track No. 3) a second time;
Give participants 2 minutes to write down their answers on the answer sheet.

Part 3. Reading Comprehension Competition

In terms of complexity, the tasks correspond to level B2+ (complicated advanced threshold level) and C1 (Advanced – Professional proficiency level). It is assumed that at this level of language proficiency, a participant in the Olympiad should be able to:

understand articles and messages on contemporary issues;
separate information that is important for understanding the text from information that is not important;
understand the position of the author of the text;
be able to establish a connection between previous information and subsequent information.

Texts may contain up to 2-3% unfamiliar words, ignorance of which should not interfere with understanding the text and completing tasks.

Part 4. Lexico-grammatical test (Use of English)

In all, for each correct answer the participant receives 1 point.

The maximum number of points for the vocabulary and grammar test is 50.

The second part (Use of English) includes tasks that correspond to a complex advanced threshold level of difficulty B2+ and C1 according to the Council of Europe scale. Participants in the Olympiad must demonstrate an appropriate level of proficiency in lexical material and the ability to operate with it. The mastery of grammatical material within the framework of the secondary school program and the ability to practically use it not only at the level of an individual sentence, but also in a broader context are also tested.

Part 5. Writing competition

In the writing round assignment, students are asked to write an article for a magazine based on an advertisement for a feature film and comments on it in the amount of 220 - 250 words You must approach the task creatively and try to write an original article.

Allotted to complete the task 50 minutes.

The proposed genre of written work tests the skills of writing productive letters, the ability to competently, logically and consistently describe events, while showing originality in the creation and construction of a plot.

When assessing written work, the following criteria are taken into account: content, composition, vocabulary, grammar and spelling (see the scale with evaluation criteria for the “Writing” part).

ATTENTION! Checking written workincludes the following steps:

1) frontal check of one (randomly selected and photocopied for all jury members) work;

2) discussion of the assigned assessments in order to develop a balanced verification model;

3) individual verification of works: each work is checked without fail by two jury members independently of each other (each jury member receives a clean copy of the work without any marks). If there is a significant discrepancy between the grades given (5 points or more), another check is assigned, and “controversial” works are checked and discussed collectively.

In terms of complexity, the tasks correspond to the threshold level B2 (Upper-Intermediate - Threshold advanced level) and C1 (Advanced - Professional proficiency level) on the Council of Europe scale.

1. It is assumed that at this level of language proficiency, a participant in the Olympiad must be able to:

write coherent texts of complex structure on various topics;
describe and explain actual or fictitious events in a logical and chronological sequence, clearly and clearly present a set of facts or phenomena;
present and construct the plot correctly compositionally;
create logically connected text in accordance with the specified genre and style parameters.

2. A good article may contain a small number of spelling, grammatical or lexical errors (see assessment criteria).

3. In written work, originality in solving a given communicative task is encouraged.

4. The criteria for assessing written speech consist of two blocks: assessments for content (maximum 10 points) and assessments for text design (maximum 10 points).

If the length of an essay is exceeded by no more than 10%, points will not be reduced. If the participant’s written work is less than 40% of the volume specified in the assignment, the work is not assessed, because communication task is considered unfulfilled (for more details, see the assessment criteria).

Summarizing:

For each participant, the points received for each competition are summed up (16+12+12+50+20=110).

The winner is the participant who scores the most points.

Preview:

Municipal stage of the All-Russian Olympiad for schoolchildren in English, 2014.

9-11 grades

Part 1. Listening Comprehension

Task 1. You will hear a conversation. For items 1-10 , decide whether the statements marked 1-10 True (A) or False (B) according to the text you hear. You will hear the recording only once.

The man was driving home after a party in the small hours.

True

False

The man heard a very loud noise.

True

False

The flying saucer was about half a kilometer ahead of the man.

True

False

At first, the man thought that he had seen an airplane.

True

False

The man was so frightened that he drove as far away from the UFO as he could.

True

False

The man says he has seen an extraterrestrial.

True

False

The beast was huge and hairy.

True

False

The beast wanted to take the man to his master.

True

False

The alien could speak English.

True

False

The flying saucer was diamond-shaped.

True

False

Task 2. Listen to the conversation ‘Healthy Lifestyle’ and choose the best answer A, B or C to questions 11-16 according to what you hear. You will hear the recording only once.

11. Which sentence is not true?

A) The man likes to eat when watching TV.

B) The man is organizing a company basketball team.

C) The man was one of the best basketball players 25 years ago.

12. What is the woman worried about?

A) Her husband is not very healthy.

B) Her husband will spend a lot of time away from home.

C) Her husband will become a fitness freak.

13. What does the woman say?

A) Her husband has once had a heart attack.

B) Her husband needs a check-up.

C) Her husband should give up the idea of playing basketball.

14. What kind of diet does the woman recommend?

A) He should consume fewer fatty foods.

B) He should eat more carbohydrates.

C) He should cut down on eating lots of fruits and vegetables.

15. What doesn’t the woman suggest doing?

A) cycling

B) weight training

C) jogging

16. Why should the man start training?

A) To make the muscles and the heart stronger.

B) To lose weight.

C) To take part in an annual body building contest.

Integrated reading and listening

Task 1. Read the text, then listen to a part of the lecture on the same topic. You will notice that some ideas coincide and some differ in them. Answer questions 1-12 by choosing A if the idea is expressed in both materials, B if it can be found only in the reading text, C if it can be found only in the audio-recording, and D if neither of the materials expresses the idea.

Now you have 2 minutes to read the text.

For many years, scientists have known that music can help soothe babies. Then they discovered that listening to music, Mozart in particular, can help babies in ways they hadn’t imagined before. The phenomenon, called the Mozart Effect, was found to have positive benefits on intelligence and creativity.

In one study, psychologists gave study participants three tests. During each of the tests, the participants of the study listened to either Mozart, relaxation music, or nothing at all. The results of the study showed that all of the participants scored better on the tests after listening to Mozart. On average, the participants added about nine points to their IQ after listening to Mozart.

The Mozart Effect also affects the creativity of babies. In his book, American author Don Campbell described how playing Mozart for babies before they are born can help them become more creative as adults. According to Campbell, the music helped stimulate their mental development. By the time the babies were born, they were already more creative than babies who did not listen to Mozart. His argument was so strong that some hospitals decided to give all new mothers CDs of Mozart’s music.

Now listen to a part of the lecture on the same topic and then do the task (questions 1-12), comparing the text above and the lecture. You will hear the lecture twice.

1. Music can calm babies down.

2. The Mozart Effect has a good impact on children’s intelligence and creativity.

3. The study involved three tests.

4. One group of the test-takers did not listen to any music at all.

5. The test-takers were college students.

6. A molecular basis for the Mozart Effect has recently been revealed.

7. The extra nine points, added to the IQs of those who listened to Mozart, disappeared after 15 minutes.

8. Rats, like humans, perform better on learning and memory tests after listening to a Mozart sonata.

9. The Mozart Effect has not been scientifically proven.

10. Don Campbell's book The Mozart Effect has condensed the world’s research on all beneficial effects of certain types of music.

11. Some hospitals gave new mothers CDs of Mozart’s music.

12. The theory of the Mozart Effect was a marketing tool.

Reading Comprehension

Task 1. Read the following newspaper article. Five sentences have been removed from the article. Choose from the paragraphs the one, which fits each gap(1-5) best of all. There are two extra sentences, which you do not need to use.

Don't Worry Be Happy

One of my many faults has been my tendency at times to attempt to cross a bridge difficult before I have come to it. 1) ____________ I will tell you of an example of this sort of experience which overtook me many years ago and of which I was reminded just recently.

In the early Sixties, the British India Steam Navigation Company embarked upon a project to offer educational cruises to pupils of secondary and junior schools in Britain, a project which turned out to be very popular, and I was invited to be the Protestant chaplain on the second of the early cruises.

I was pleased to accept since it was during my month"s holiday from my church. 2) ______ I was being regaled by kindly friends with stories of how badly seasick passengers could become if it was stormy - as it often was - when sailing through the Bay of Biscay, which our ship would be navigating on its way to the Mediterranean.

I decided to seek help. 3) _____________ To my surprise and disappointment, he laughed ruefully.

"I"m afraid I can offer you no help at all. I was seasick every single time we left port during my service days!"

My anxieties proved needless. 4) _______________ It was different on our homeward voyage, with a force ten gale through Biscay. Many of my fellow passengers were seasick, but to my surprise and relief I was not in the least upset by the stormy conditions and the violent movements of the ship. 5) ____________ I had tortured myself needlessly, by trying to cross bridges before I came to them.

A Then I began to worry a bit, as I had never yet been to sea.

B People can cause themselves significant pain and nervous tension by trying to cope in

Advance with the anxiety of an impending serious threat, for instance a major operation

Or some other calamity.

C The weather on our outward voyage was marvelously sunny all the way and the Bay of

Biscay was perfectly calm.

D As a result, I have invariably suffered totally unnecessary stress and strain, of no benefit

Either to myself or to anyone else.

E All my forebodings proved completely unfounded.

F I had a friend who had commanded a frigate in the war, and I asked him to advise me

What measures I might take to prevent seasickness.

G I once had an acquaintance who refused to take out an insurance policy or prepare for the future.

Task 2. Read the following newspaper article and answer questions 6-11 by choosing A, B, C, or D. Give only one answer to each question.

UP Up and AWAY

You may remember King Kong on the Empire State Building in the film, where a comparison is implied between the then highest building in the world (at 380m) and the giant, menacing ape. Ever since the Tower of Babel, man has liked to think big in terms of building. Whether it be by constructing pyramids, ziggurats or palaces (while, perhaps paradoxically, living in huts and hovels), he has had an urge to reach for the sky and it is this that has led to the twentieth/twenty-first century craze for skyscrapers. Indeed, thrusting aggressively into the sky like rockets about to take off, these structures seem to mimic our passion for space exploration.

In order for modern skyscrapers to be a practical possibility, however, something had to happen. That was the invention of the lift, by Elisha Graves Otis, in 1854. Three years later, it was put to commercial use in New York and buildings higher than five stores became feasible for the first time.

The first high-rise constructions were not skyscrapers as we would recognize them today, but merely taller than average buildings. In 1899, however, the Park Row office block was constructed with a steel frame, and this led to new techniques where the form of the building is skeletal, with the main loading being located in the central core and the external “curtain wall” constructed of lightweight materials, for instance glass and aluminum. This substitution of lighter materials for concrete made it possible for architects to design buildings of 400 to 500m in height. Having said that, it should be borne in mind that the tallest building in the world is currently Petronas Towers, rising 452m above Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia and that it is also the tallest concrete structure in the world.

Getting higher and higher with the development of relevant technology, skyscrapers are a fair indication of economic trends, going up during the boom years only to come to a standstill when recessions cut off funds. For this reason, the 1980s heralded a wave of skyscraper building while the less promising 1990s slowed it down. Furthermore, the bulk of the building work has moved from its home in the USA (Chicago being the birthplace of the skyscraper) to Asia, reflecting the new power, prestige and confidence of the growing tiger economies. It is, therefore, no wonder that Kuala Lumpur’s Petronas Towers superseded Chicago’s Sear’s Tower, which at 443m had been the tallest building in the world for 22 years, in 1998.

The New World is, nevertheless, fighting back against this competition from the Pacific Rim, with plans for Chicago South Dearborn project (610m), to be completed by 2003. Europe, on the other hand, seems to have opted out of the race altogether , the planned London Millennium Tower being scaled down from a projected 486m to 386m because otherwise people would consider it too tall! Europe's current highest building, Commerzbank headquarters in Frankfurt, is, at 261m, no match for the American and Asian giants, and neither is London's Canary Wharf (236m) which was the highest building in Europe until 1997. Asian giants in the pipeline are Tokyo's Millennium Tower at 840m and Hong Kong's Bionic Tower at a staggering 1,128m.

Asia and America may be experiencing an urge to push ever upwards, but there are sound reasons that have nothing to do with economy or lack of ambition, for keeping tall buildings to the 400 to 500m mark. Heights exceeding that present logistical problems, such as how to transport large numbers of people up and down the building, such as how to minimize wind sway (which may be as much as 3 meters (9 ft) in either direction, especially in the home of the skyscraper 'windy city,' Chicago!) and how to find investors to rent space in the middle, assuming that the bottom will fill with shops and the top with hotels and observation towers. Experts, however, are working on two of these problems, experimenting with different kinds of lift and conducting extensive wind tunnel tests to help eliminate wind-induced sway.

In times of economic austerity, though, can we really afford to build these energy-intensive structures? Well, they are in several respects eco-friendly, providing a lot of office space on relatively little land, concentrating several services in one place and reducing overspill into green belts.

Nevertheless, it is no mean feat to equip skyscrapers with renewable sources of energy, as ideas such as covering the facade with photo-voltaic cells to convert light energy into electricity are extremely expensive. Street-level winds, however, may be utilized to power turbines which generate electricity within the buildings, and there are specific plans for a citygate ecotower in London (456m), which would derive half of its energy sources from solar and wind power.

So, what will the future hold for skyscrapers? Will they change the face and the skyline of our cities just to make a point, as it were? Who knows? Even today, though, King Kong would be spoiled for choice.

6. Why does the author mention King Kong?

A. To remind the reader of the famous film.

B. To show the size of the building.

C. To prove that today King Kong would not be a good choice.

D. Because King Kong was a menacing ape.

7. The author states that people like to build big because

A it compensates for their disability to travel in space.

It is rooted in our history.

WITH it seems to be an innate desire.

D they like to live in pyramids and palaces.

8. The modern skyscraper was first made possible by

A a device invented in the nineteenth century.

IN buildings more than 5 stores high.

WITH the steel-frame building technique.

D a commercial building in New York.

9. Skyscrapers are a mirror of

A the tiger economies.

In Asian power.

With building trends.

economic tendencies.

10. What is the European attitude towards very high buildings?

A More enthusiastic than American and Asian ones.

In Competitive and aggressive.

With A lack of ambition.

D Not particularly enthusiastic.

11. Why are so many skyscrapers no more than 400 - 500m tall?

A Because people like them that way.

IN Because investors don"t want them taller.

WITH Because taller buildings present specific problems.

D Because the middle floors cannot be let easily.

12. In ecological terms, skyscrapers today

A are too expensive and energy-intensive.

B are always eco-friendly.

WITH cannot be heated by alternative energy.

D are of some benefit to the environment.

USE OF ENGLISH

Task 1. For questions 1-15 read the text about school calendars in America. Solve the crossword puzzle by replacing the underlined words or word combinations with their synonyms. The (0 down ) and (00 across ) in the beginning of the text have been done as examples to help you.

Today we continue our discussion of school calendars as a new American school year(0 down ) starts.

Some people say the (00 across ) conventional calendar of one hundred eighty days no longer meets the(1 down) requirements of American society. They point out that students in most other industrial countries are in school more hours a day and more days a year.

Critics also say a long summer vacation causes students to forget much of what they learned.

Schools are under pressure to raise test scores. Some have changed their calendars to try to improve students’ results. They have(2 across ) extended the school day or added days to the year or both.

This can be (3 down) expensive if schools need air conditioning on hot days and school(4 across) staff need to be paid for the extra time.

Local businesses may object to a longer school year because students are unable to work long in summer jobs.

Some schools have a year-round(5 down) program . The school year is extended over twelve months. Instead of a long vacation, there are many short ones.

The National Association of Year-Round Education says almost five percent of public school students(6 down) go to year-round schools. It says almost all of the states have some public schools that are open all year.

Some parts of the country had year-round programs in the nineteenth century, mostly for economic reasons. They felt it wasted money to use school(7 down) buildings for only part of the year. Some(8 across) teachers think year-round education gives(9 across ) help and encouragement to students from poor families who(10 down) don't have much financial assistance at home as their parents might not have permanent(11 across ) work.

Year-round (12 across ) education can also (13 across ) decrease crowding in schools. In one version, students attend school for nine weeks and then have three weeks off. The students are in groups that are not all in school at the same time.

Another year-round calendar has all students in school together for nine weeks and off for three. This is meant to(14 across) supply the continuous learning that can be lost over a long break. And the main purpose of schools is to improve students’(15 across ) achievements .

But year-round schooling has opponents. They say it can cause problems for families when they want to make summer plans. And they say it interferes with activities outside school – including summer employment.

Some experts say no really good studies have been done to measure the effect of school calendars on performance.












		00 t

			12 s


14

	15

Task 2.For questions16-30 , complete the text with the words from the box. You may use one word more than once. Write the letterA-Mfor the word you choose in the box below the text.

AeggBomeletCpoisonDgrainEmilkFbaconGeatHeggshellsIsardinesJteaKsaltLmustardMcoffee

My mother always told us “there is no use crying over spillt16) ____.” That means you should not get angry when something bad happens and cannot be changed.

People said my mother was “a good17) _____.” She would always help anyone in need.

We never had to “walk on18) ______” around her – we did not have to be careful about what we said or did because she never got angry with us.

She also told us “you have to break some eggs to make an19) _____.” This means you have to do what is necessary to move forward.

My mother believed “you are what you20) _____” – a good diet is important for good health. She would always give us nutritious food. She liked serving us meat and potatoes for dinner. “Meat and potatoes” can also mean the most important part of something. It describes someone who likes simple things.

Here is another expression about meat: “one man’s meat is another man’s”21) ____.” In other words, one person might like something very much while another person might hate the same thing.

My father was also a good and honest person. People said he was “the22) ____ of the earth.” He would never “pour23) ____ on a wound” – or make someone feel worse about something that was already a painful experience.

However, sometimes he told us a story that seemed bigger than life. So we had to “take it with a24) ____ of salt” – that is, we could not believe everything he told us.

My husband has a good job. He makes enough money to support our family. So we say “he brings home the25) _____.”

He can't cut the26) _____” – or do what is expected of him at work.

It is easy to find my husband in a crowd. He almost stands two meters tall. He is “a tall drink of water.”

I take the train to work. It is not a pleasant ride because the train can be full of people. It is so crowded that we are “packed like27) _____” – just like small fish in a can.

When we fail to see problems at work, my supervisor tells us to “wake up and smell the28) ____” – we need to pay more attention and fix the problem.

I once made a big mistake at the office and felt foolish. I had “29) ____ on my face.”

Over the weekend, my friend invited me to watch a football game on television. But I don't like football. It is “not my cup of30) ____.”

We hope we have given you “food for thought” – that is, something to think about.

16	17	18	19	20	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30

Task 3.For tasks31-40 , change the word given in capitals on the right in such a way that it can fit the text lexically and grammatically.

Cheryl Kuit pressed play and Latin music filled the room. As Cheryl started practicing her Zumba dance moves, her 16-year-old daughter Amber let out a groan.

‘Come on,’ said Cheryl. 'Don't you feel like31) __________?’

But while her mum boogied across the room, Amber just rolled her eyes and32) _______________________ on texting her friends.

Cheryl couldn't understand it. She’d loved PE at school, enjoyed squash in her 20s and33) ___________________________ a dress size since becoming a Zumba Fitness teacher.

Her seven-year-old Catherine, loved running and gymnastics, but there34) ______________________ no way of getting her big sister35) _______________________ some exercise.

Cheryl said, ‘I want to encourage Amber to have a break from her books and computer screen. I’d love her to go to the gym.’

But Amber said that having piles of homework stopped her from getting fit.

‘I’m at school from 8am to 4pm,’ she explained. ‘Then I come home and do three hours of homework. I just36) ______________ time for sport.’

She admitted she’d rather spend her free time hanging out with friends – and it was no help that her school didn’t see PE a priority.

She said, 'Because we37) ________________ exams now, our year group has just one hour a week for sport. There are clubs but you have to be the very best to get in. They38) ___________________ just for fun.’

Cheryl, 46, of Dennan Road, Surbiton, Greater London,39) _____________________ up hope yet. She thinks everything will be all right. She says, ‘I’ll be a very happy lady when one day Amber40) ____________________, “Come on, Mum. Let’s go Zumba!” ’

DANCE

CARRY

DROP

TAKE

NOT HAVE

NOT BE

NOT GIVE

SAY

Task 4.For questions41-50 , think ofone wordonly which can be used appropriatelyin all three sentences.

41. ● I need more ………………………….…… at using this computer program.

● I am worried about my interview because I’m a bit out of …………..……… .

● The …………..……… of dumping the waste into the river has to be stopped.

42. ● Her teeth were …………….... after she’d worn braces on them for two years.

● He managed to speak with a steady, …….………voice, despite the fact that he was furious with them.

● Make sure the surface is ……………..…..before you put up the wall paper.

43. ● The ………………..… with him is that he doesn’t have any patience.

● She went to a lot of ………………..… to prepare the meal.

● She’s had a lot of back……………..…. lately and will have to have an operation.

44. ● He is very ………………….. with money.

● That’s a …………………. thing to do.

● The……………….... annual temperature is 25ºC.

45. ● She began to ………………….…… the milk into the sauce.

● He was in a deep sleep and didn’t …………………..….. once all night.

● The book seemed to ……………………..….. him profoundly.

46. ●You can carry this box; it’s……………………………. .

● She bought a beautiful …………………………. blue dress

●There was a ……………………..…. knock at the door.

47. ● Her house was very close to the local rubbish ……………………..…. .

● Let me give you a …………………....: you need to get some legal advice.

●She left a ………………….…. on the table for the waiter.

48. ● He …………………………... on you for support.

● She …………………………. Angela as one of her closest friends.

● It’s a person’s character that ……………………… not their appearance.

49. ●They haven’t………..a date for the wedding, but it will be sometime next spring.

● His arm isn’t straight because the doctor didn’t……………….…. it properly.

● If you make the salad, I’ll …………………………..… the table.

50. ●Too much criticism is hard to …………………..…….. .

● Oh, you know how silly he is. He’ll……………..…. any old story, no matter how unbelievable it is.

● The cost of private education will…………….…. up your savings in no time.

Writing

Task 1.The editor of a student magazine, publishing a series of articles on different cultural events at your school, has asked you to contribute an article to it. You have decided to write about the filmThe Identicalyou saw last week with your family.

Read the film advertisement and handwritten notes prepared for the article. Then, using the information appropriately, write your article for the magazine.

Remember to:

● include a title;

● use an appropriate style;

● make a critical evaluation and analysis of the event;

● recommend what should be done to make this kind of event better and more acceptable for school children and their families.

Write220-250 words.

The text of the advertisement or any of its parts should not be copied in your article, USE YOUR OWN WORDS AND EXPRESSIONS.

Time: 50 minutes

Film Advertisement

Started much laterBrilliant actingGood choice

Sunday4 p.m.A family film!The Identical, a drama and musical, which will please everyone, is a captivating journey about the restoration and the reconciliation of a family broken apart by culture, devotion, creed and tradition.The plot is funny and enjoyable.Twin brothers are unknowingly separated at birth; one of them becomes an iconic rock "n" roll star, while the other struggles to balance his love for music and pleasing his father. The fabulously named Blake Rayneplays two brothersin this story based on the life ofElvis Presleyand his brother who died in childbirth. There are manyfunny and enjoyable scenes.Running time – 107 minutes, witha short intervalfor people to buy refreshments andice-cream. Tickets400 RUB.

No ice-creamToo muchToo shortInteresting, but not dynamic enough

Some songs are sillyNo Elvis music is heard

______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

YOU CAN USE THE REVERSE SIDE

Preview:

Task 1.

Police Officer: Hello. 24th Precinct. Officer Jones speaking.

Man: Help. Yeah, uh, it was wild, I mean really bizarre.

Police Officer: Calm down sir! Now, what do you want to report?

Man: Well, I"d like to report a UFO sighting.

Police Officer: What?

Man: What do you mean "what?" An unidentified flying object!

Police Officer: Wait, tell me exactly what you saw.

Man: Well, I was driving home from a party about three hours ago, so it was about 2:00 AM, when I saw this bright light overhead.

Police Officer: Okay. And then what happened?

Man: Oh, man. Well, it was out of this world. I stopped to watch the light when it disappeared behind a hill about a kilometer ahead of me.

Police Officer: Alright. Then what?

Man: Well, I got back in my car and I started driving towards where the UFO landed.

Police Officer: Now, how do you know it was a UFO? Perhaps you only saw the lights of an airplane, or the headlights of an approaching car. Things like that happen, you know.

Man: Well if it was that, how do you explain "the BEAST"?

Police Officer: What do you mean, "the BEAST"?

Man: Okay. I kept driving for about five minutes when all of a sudden, this giant, hairy creature jumped out in front of my car.

Police Officer: Oh, yeah.Then what?

Man: Well, then, the beast picked up the front of my car and said, "Get out of the car. I"m taking you to my master!" Something like that.

Police Officer: Wow? A hairy alien who can speak English! Come on!

Man: I"m not making this up, if that"s what you"re suggesting. Then, when I didn"t get out of the car, the beast opened the car door, carried me on his shoulders to this round-shaped flying saucer, and well, that"s when I woke up along side the road. The beast must have knocked me out and left me there.

Police Officer: Well, that"s the best story I"ve heard all night, sir. Now, have you been taking any medication, drugs, or alcohol in the last 24 hours? You mentioned you went to a party.

Man: What? Well, I did have a few beers, but I"m telling the truth.

Police Officer: Okay, okay. We have a great therapist that deals with THESE kinds of cases.

Man: "Humph" What do you mean "Humph." I was the star player in high school.

Woman: Yeah, twenty-five years ago. Look, I just don"t want you having a heart attack running up and down the court.

Man:So, what are you suggesting? Should I justabandon the idea? I"m not thatout of shape .

Woman: Well. . . you ought to at least have aphysical before you begin. I mean, it HAS been at least five years since you played at all.

Man:Well, okay, but . . .

Woman: And you need to watch your diet andcut back on the fatty foods, like ice cream. And you should try eating more fresh fruits and vegetables.

Man: Yeah, you're probably right.

Woman: And you shouldtake up a little weight training to strengthen your muscles or perhaps try cycling to build up yourcardiovascular system . Oh, and you need to go to bed early instead of watching TV half the night.

Man: Hey, you"re starting to sound like my personal fitness instructor!

Woman: No, I just love you, and I want you to be around for a long, long time.

Task 3. Integrated reading and listening

Today let’s talk about the effect of music on babies. There’s the theory about the so-called Mozart Effect, which refers to the supposed increased performance of babies after listening to Mozart. But the claims made in the book have been challenged and disproved by a number of other studies. Let me tell you about them.

First, let’s talk about a study often referred to that supports the Mozart Effect where the participants took three different tests. While the test-takers were completing the test, they listened to either Mozart, relaxation music, or nothing at all. Well, what is often left out is that the test-takers in the study were not babies at all – they were college students. Which explains why they were able to take the tests in the first place, right? Anyway, even if we decide to overlook the fact that we’re talking about college students, the effects mentioned in the study were also not long-lasting. The extra nine points that were added to their IQs after listening to Mozart went away after about 15 minutes.

Another claim made is that listening to Mozart makes children more creative. It even says that if you play Mozart for babies before they are born, they will be born more creative than babies who did not listen to Mozart. But there is no actual scientific proof of any of this. Since the theory of the Mozart Effect became popular, claims like this have been made over and over again, mostly to help sell expecting parents CDs of classical music. But, until some proof is reported, we have to consider such claims as nothing more than marketing tools.

All-Russian Olympiad for schoolchildren in English 2017 ‐ 2018 School stage 5 – 6 classes Duration execution – 60 minutes Part 1

LISTENING Task 1

Listen to Susie talking to her friend Matt about going to the cinema. For each question, choose the right answer (A, B or C). You will hear the conversation twice.

Example:

0 Who is going to the cinema with Susie?

A Jane

B Sam

C Pete

___________________________________________________________________________________

1. Which film will they see?

A Sunny Day

B Field of Green

C Heart of Gold

2. They are going to the cinema

A by the market.

B in the shopping centre.

C opposite the park.

3. How will they get there?

A by car

B on foot

C by bus

4. Matt should meet Susie at

A 3.45.

B 4.15.

C 4.20.

5. The cinema tickets will cost

A £5.50.

B £6.20.

C £8.00.

Task 2

Listen to Nick talking to a friend about his birthday presents. What present did each person give him? For questions 1- 5, choose a letter A - H next to each person.

You will hear the conversation twice.

Example:

0 Cousin B

__________________________________________________________________________________

PEOPLE

PRESENTS

1. Mum

A bike

2. Brother

B book

3. Aunt

C cinema tickets

4. Uncle

D clothes

5. Grandmother

E computer game

F mobile phone

G money

H music CD

Part 2

READING

Task 1

Read the text and fill in the gaps (1 - 6) with the phrases (A -G). There is one phrase you don’t need to use.

Venice of the North

Russia is a huge country and there are many beautiful and interesting places to visit.

Saint Petersburg has got many things to see and do for the whole family. The city’s Central Park of Leisure and Culture is famous1. __________ and it is a great place to go to have fun.

You can visit the Elaginoostrovsky Palace of wax figures or go on exciting rides at the fun park. In the summer you can2. __________ or even take a steamship ride on the river. In the winter, many people go ice-skating3. __________ or sleigh down a steep snowy hill for fun.

Saint Petersburg has something for everyone. If you like animals4. _________ the Leningradsky Zoo with its 400 different types of animals from all around the world. You can also visit the wonderful Durov Animal Theater and5. __________ perform. The Dolphinarium is also a must. Watch dolphins do clever tricks and6. __________ and have a laugh with the funny sea lions. If you have time you should also check out the famous Puppet Theater of Fairy Tales where you can see old and modern plays.

A at the park's ski center

B don't miss

C see all sorts of animals

D for its attractions

E take lots of pictures

F hire boats and explore the park

G even sing and dance for cheering crowds

Task 2

Read the story and choose True, False or Not stated

This is the story of a ghost. He lives in the beautiful Canterville Castle. Mr. Otis and his family live there, too. The ghost has got big red eyes, gray hair, a long nose, thin legs and a white face. He thinks he's very frightening. But nobody is afraid of him.

The ghost is very sad and unhappy. He cries in his room in the tower. Mr. Otis" daughter, Virginia feels sorry for him and wants to help him. The ghost tells her about his problem. He can only rest when a girl with blond hair helps him and the almond tree has flowers.

Virginia and the ghost go through a wall. The Otis family looks for Virginia in the rooms, under the beds, behind the doors, on the roof. They finally see her sitting by the almond tree. They look up and notice that the almond tree has flowers. Virginia and the ghost can finally rest. Now they are happy.

1. It is a story about a ghost.

2. He lives in Canterville Village.